1 John, verse-by-verse
Session 1 | Introduction and 1 John 1:1-4
Introduction
Who wrote the epistle?
The epistle itself gives no name of authorship whatsoever.
“we" as the author (1 John 1:4) as well as “I" (1 John 2:1).
“we" appears 80 times.
“I" appears 15 times.
It is almost certain that whoever wrote the first epistle also wrote the second and third.
In the final two epistles, the author refers to himself as the elder (2 Jn. 1:1, 3 Jn. 1:1).
There is a fair amount of similarity in the writing style of the fourth Gospel and 1 John. However, I am not a strong advocate of the idea that style can be used to determine authorship. Furthermore, the book of Revelation, certainly by John, is not of the same style as the Gospel nor the letters.
Tradition strongly favors John the Apostle, but not without some debate.
My position: While the letters could be from the Apostle John, it could also be from another respected leader of the Jewish believers, even Lazarus.
When was it written?
Traditional dating is late first-century. Usher's dating is 90 AD.
I find nothing that reflects the setting of 90 AD and speculate (along with Bullinger) that it is much earlier, perhaps early mid-century. This would place the letters only shortly after (if not before) the Jerusalem conference (Acts 15).
What were the circumstances?
Based on language, it has been popular to say that at least 1 John was a defense against Gnosticism. It is this fact alone that has caused scholars to put a late date on the epistle, since Gnosticism did not arise until late first-century.
The discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls displayed that the same kind of light discussions as 1 John (see 1 Jn. 1:5) were engaged in long before Gnosticism, by those who were not gnostics. Furthermore, even before this discover, those who cared to do a bit of research would have found that “light/dark" discussions (supposedly gnostics) are commonplace among Jewish thinkers (see, for example: ).
I reject any connection of Gnosticism to the epistle.
I think that the epistle was written by a believing Jew, one well-known among the believing community, and that he was writing about Jewish/Kingdom issues.
The writing either pre-dates or is very closely corresponding with the mystery that allows gentiles a way to Christ.
The book does not assume a freedom from the law, but rather an adherence to the law for the establishment of the Kingdom.
1 John 1:1-5 | Background and Purpose of the Epistle
Verse 1 --
The author of the epistle is clearly an eyewitness of the ministry of Jesus.
He testifies of a singular thing which was from the beginning (not the things which were from the beginning).
This thing has been heard and seen and looked upon and handled and is the Word of life.
Since Greek uses the word λόγος [logos] it is the Logos of life, that is, the meaning or full content of life. Clearly this must be a reference to Jesus the Messiah (for to what else could it refer?).
Comparing with John 1:1, the wording is very similar as is, no doubt, the meaning.
At the outset the author uses the third person plural we, with no identifying clues. That he doesn't include the recipients becomes clear in verse2 and 4, where we and you are set in contrast.
Verse 2 --
The author clarifies the Word of life (v. 1) as the life (v. 2), once again almost incontestably a reference to Jesus.
This life was manifested (made visible) and seen“here and now" experience for the author.
Having seen Jesus, now the author writes to bear witness and to shew unto you that eternal life.
The eternal life“salvation," but I think it is a reference to Jesus, the Eternal Life (capitalized).
Jesus is the Eternal Life which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us. That is, Jesus is the eternal life that the author of the epistle is talking about. For if you simply insert Jesus into eternal life, this passage will still make perfect sense.
Verse 3 --
The author desires that the readers have the same fellowship with the Father as us, which is why he writes may have fellowship with us. This reveals that the recipients are not currently believers.
Therefore, my hypothesis going into this study is as follows:
The author is a Jew who believes in Jesus as Messiah, writing to Jews who do not believe Jesus is Messiah.
The author's purpose will be to convince these Jews to join the little flock for whom it is the Father's good pleasure to give...the kingdom (Lk. 12:32).
As such, the message of 1 John will be compatible to a Jewish entrance to the Kingdom but not compatible with the sharing of the saving Gospel, for it will have works along with faith at its core (rather than faith alone).
Verse 4 --
These things must be the things of the epistle, yet to be written.
The writing has already been stated as for the purpose of bringing the readers into fellowship with us (v. 3) and now that your joy may be full.
Note that other manuscripts (and thus modern translations) have our joy rather than your joy. I will interpret the writer as speaking of your joy.
Could this fulfillment of joy be equivalent to the times of refreshing of Acts 3:19? If so, the author is not longing for the happiness of his audience, but for the arrival of the Kingdom and its subsequent joy.
