Philippians, Rightly Divided, Verse-by-Verse
Session 19 | Phillippians 4:18-23
Philippians 4:10-20 | The Generous Philippian Church
Verses 10-13 -- see session 17
Verses 14-17 -- see session 18
Verse 18 -- Green
The verb translated I have all can also be translated I have received all“everything you sent, I got."
Paul goes on to speak of the Philippian gift as an odour of sweet smell, a sacrifice acceptable. This is clearly the language of the Hebrew sacrificial system, used metaphorically. Paul uses the word *sacrifice(s) *five times, using it as metaphor four of those times (Rom. 12:1, Eph. 5:2, Phil. 2:17, 4:18).In the end, even though the Philippians were not required by Law nor by Paul to give financially to his need, and though it was not done for reward (se notes, v. 17), the giving was nonetheless wellpleasing to God.
Verse 19 -- Green
The meaning of this verse is clear, but on application we must be careful. Is Paul making promises to the entire body of Christ, or just to the Philippian church?
The evangelical manner of interpreting this verse is invariably to assume that your need refers to my need“name it and claim it" sort, they are then forced to immediately backtrack on their explanations. The typical backtrack says something like, “God doesn't promise to supply all our wants, but only our needs." This seems to me to be artificial. In fact, the word supply is the same as in the phrase I am full, found in verse 19. And in the broader context, Paul claimed that his needs had already been met (v. 11) before the Philippians caused him to abound (v. 18) and be full (v. 18). Furthermore, the Greek word translated need is also used in Philippians 2:25, where it is translated wants.
An example of this typical backtracking can be found at Bibleref.org (an extension of GotQuestions), which says,
It seems to me safer to take the pronoun your and apply, in context, to the Philippians. God may (and often does) supply all our need, but He is not obligated by this verse to do so.
Verse 20 -- Black
Paul closes the substantive portion of the epistle with a doxology.
The phrase God and our Father begs the question: are they two or one? The Greek phrase is used seven times in the Scriptures, five being Pauline. Paul speaks of God the Father in 1 Thessalonians 1:1, without the word and. He speaks of God our Father in 2 Thessalonians 1:1, also without using the word and. The Thessalonian usages prove that Paul could have said“God our Father" but rather said God and our Father. In the end, nothing grammatically insists that God be distinguished from Father, and this should be taken as emphasis.Philippians 4:21-23 | Paul's Closing Comments
Verses 21-22 -- Black
V. 21 says the brethren which are with me greet you. But verse 22 says that all the saints salute you. The word greet in 21 and salute in 22 is translated from the same Greek word. Was he just being repetitive, or were the saints (v. 22) a different group than the brethren (v.21)? I contend that the term saint is used exclusively of the believing elect of Israel).
Paul further notes that the saints...that are of Caesar's household send greetings. But would Caesar have Jewish workers in his house? Of that there is little doubt. But Paul uses the word οικος [oikos], normally translated simply house. Could it be that some of Caesar's own family“Poppea, Nero's wife, who was a religious woman" (Antiquities, XX, vii, 11). The context in which he speaks is in relationship to a Jewish political matter. It is intriguing to consider that Nero's own wife may have been a believing Jew. The Jewish Encylopedia“æa, like many members of prominent Roman families, inclined to Judaism, and her last wish, that she might be buried according to Jewish customs, was granted by Nero."
Verse 23 -- Green
Paul closes with his customary prayer of grace.
