Original Sin: Does It Exist?
*Because You Asked -- Sermon 2**2*
some definitions
“Original sin is the Christian doctrine that holds that humans, through the fact of birth, inherit a tainted nature in need of regeneration and a proclivity to sinful conduct." ().
““that sin and its guilt that we all possess in God's eyes as a direct result of Adam's sin in the Garden of Eden." ().
GotQuestions“Original sin can be defined as ‘the moral corruption we possess as a consequence of Adam's sin, resulting in a sinful disposition manifesting itself in habitually sinful behavior.' The doctrine of original sin focuses particularly on its effect on our internal nature and our standing before God."
“—together with Adam's imputed condemnation—we all enter the world guilty before God. Original Sin shows that we sin because we are sinners, entering this world with a corrupt nature." https://www.thegospelcoalition.org/essay/original-sin/
“Original Sin is a doctrine of man that has been parroted by so many generations of theologians that it is now a sacred cow, but if tested by Scripture would be found to be a totally-false man-made doctrine.
Some Scriptures
Psalm 51:5 -- though this Psalm has David and his sin with Bathsheba as its surface-level confession, it is a prophetic confession of Israel. It is purely anecdotal in either case and does not speak to the nature“faith" to use this as the basis for original sin.
Romans 5:12 -- This passage simply says that sin and death were introduced to the world by Adam. Why make the passage say more than it says?
Romans 3:10-23 -- the context of this passage is to prove that Jews were under sin (v. 9). The quote is from Psalm 14:3, which has a context of the last days.
Some Questions
If the nature of man changed at Adam's sin, shouldn't that be obvious in Scripture?
The nature of man was shown in Genesis 1-2.
The location of man changed in Genesis 3.
Is there any place in the Bible where the nature of man is shown to be changed by the Genesis 3 events?
The change would need to be obvious, not something that could only be seen with preconceived notions.
The change would need to be stated, not anecdotal, especially if it will form the basis of the saving message.
If a doctrine is foundational to the Gospel, shouldn't that doctrine be obvious in Scripture?
Original sin is at the heart of the development of practically every Gospel presentation. Practically every Gospel presentation begins with man's sin and builds upon the guilt from Adam.
Some Reprocusions
Because of the doctrine, Catholics (and others) baptize infants.
“Because baptism confers saving grace, the earlier a person comes to baptism, the better… Why do children need baptismal grace for salvation? Because they inherit original sin from the moment of conception." (https://www.simplycatholic.com/why-baptize-babies/)
“Total Depravity" of the TULIP scheme is original sin and is the kingpin of Calvinism.
Even most non-Calvinist evangelicals and fundamentalists are shocked when someone calls this doctrine and error. And most of their gospel presentations are built upon the same principles, even if they have a less dramatic means to overcome.
Some Conclusions
The doctrine of Original Sin is not the same as believing in universal sin.
Original Sin was never held by Jews and is not found in the Hebrew Scriptures.
Original Sin is a Catholic doctrine made more heinous by the Reformers who destroyed the nature of God to overcome a flawed understanding of the nature of man.
A Gospel Without Original Sin
What kind of Gospel do you share when you reject the doctrine of original sin?
Individuals are separated from God because of Adam's sin and cannot overcome this separation on their own.
God can resolve the separation problem and promised to do so!
Jesus is the fulfillment of that promise, and because of His life, death, burial, and resurrection, Jesus can be the Savior for every man, woman, boy, and girl.
God is offering a gift of salvation to anyone who would receive it. This gift is received by faith in God's gift and Jesus' payment.